試題詳解

42.A 65-year-old man presents with sudden, painless loss of vision in his right eye. Funduscopic examination shows a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the fovea. Which vascular event best
explains these findings?
(A) Hypertensive rupture of retinal microaneurysms
(B) Thrombotic occlusion of the central retinal vein
(C) Embolic occlusion of the central retinal artery
(D) Diabetic microangiopathy with neovascularization